Unseen Passage

For Class 4 to Class 12

Class 12 HOTs Biology Reproductive Health

Question. What is the full form of RCH?
(a) Reproductive and Child Healthcare
(b) Reproduction, Contraception and Health
(c) Reproduction and Child Health
(d) None of the above

Answer

A

Question. What are the various ways through which the reproductive health can be improved?
I. Education                    II. Awareness
III. Encouraging myths   IV. Ban on amniocentesis
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

Answer

A

Question. Indicators of improved reproductive health of the society are
(a) better detection and cure of STDs
(b) improved medical facilities
(c) decreased maternal and infant mortality rates
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. Coitus interruptus is the withdrawl method of natural contraception involving
(a) withdrawl of penis from vagina before ejaculation
(b) withdrawl of penis from vagina after ejaculation
(c) sex during ovulation
(d) no sex during ovulation

Answer

A

Question. Lactational amenorrhea is the
(a) absence of menses in adult age
(b) absence of menses in elderly age
(c) absence of menses during lactation
(d) no menses during pregnancy

Answer

C

Question. Population explosion is
(a) increased frequency of diseases in population
(b) rapid increase in population number
(c) rapid decrease in population number
(d) None of the above

Answer

B

Question. India’s population cross 1 billion in
(a) May 2001
(b) Dec 1999
(c) May 2000
(d) Dec 1991

Answer

C

Question. Select the hormone releasing intrauterine devices.
(a) Multiload-375, Progestasert 
(b) Progestasert, LNG-20
(c) Lippes loop, Multiload-375
(d) Vaults, LNG-20

Answer

B

Question. Copper releasing IUDs are used for suppressing the
(a) activity of ova
(b) activity of the uterus
(c) motility of the sperms
(d) motility of ova

Answer

C

Question. Causes for increased population growth in India is/are
(a) increase in birth rate
(b) decrease in maternal mortality rate
(c) lack of education
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. Which of the following are the consequences of over population?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply
(c) It results in unemployment
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. An ideal contraceptive should be
(a) user friendly
(b) reversible
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) decrease sexual drive

Answer

C

Question. Natural methods of contraception are the natural ways to
(a) increase spermicidal activity
(b) prevent fertilisation
(c) decrease mortality
(d) increase mortality

Answer

B

Question. One of the legal method of birth control is
(a) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(b) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of them enstrual cycle
(c) by having coitus at the time of day break
(d) by a premature ejaculation during coitus

Answer

B

Question. Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during
(a) follicular phase
(b) ovulatory phase
(c) menstrual phase
(d) None of the above

Answer

B

Question. The lifespan of a sperm in female body is
(a) 1-2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) Only 1 day

Answer

B

Question. Condoms or Femidoms are made up of thin rubber/latex sheath which is used to cover
(a) penis in male
(b) cervix in female
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

C

Question. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
(a) non-usable
(b) for female use only
(c) for male use only
(d) None of these

Answer

B

Question. Hepatitis-B and HIV spread through
(a) sharing needles
(b) transfusion of blood
(c) infected mother to child
(d) All of these

Answer

D

Question. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable? 
(a) Genital warts
(b) Genital herpes
(c) Chlamydiasis
(d) Gonorrhoea

Answer

B

Question. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into 
(a) uterus
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) fimbriae
(d) cervix

Answer

A

Question. IVF in which embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into female body is called
(a) IUT
(b) GIFT
(c) ZIFT
(d) ICSI

Answer

A

Question. Choose the correct option from A, B and C.

(a) A–Condoms, B–Copper-T, C–Implants
(b) A–Tubectomy, B–Implants, C–Copper-T
(c) A–Vasectomy, B–Condoms, C–Copper-T
(d) A–Copper-T, B–Condoms, C–Implants

Answer

A

Question. Administration of progesterone, progesteroneoestrogenco mbination or IUDs are effective within …… hours of coitus.
(a) 72
(b) 48
(c) 24
(d) 96

Answer

A

Question. Spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults for
(a) lubrication
(b) killing germs
(c) increasing contraceptive effectiveness
(d) None of the above

Answer

C

Question. Reproductive health is the well-being of
(a) physical aspects
(b) emotional and behavioural aspects
(c) social aspects
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. Family planning programme was initiated in
(a) 1951
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1950

Answer

A

Question. Example of copper releasing IUD is/are
(a) Cu-T
(b) Cu-7
(c) Multiload-375
(d) All of these

Answer

D

Question. An injectible form of the hormone based contraceptive is
(a) Norplant
(b) Depo-provera
(c) Mala-D
(d) Saheli

Answer

B

Question. Amniocentesis is the detection of
(a) chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid
(b) chorionic fluid from developing embryo
(c) chromosomal pattern after childbirth
(d) chromosomal pattern before fertilisation

Answer

A

Question. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis? 
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Sex of the foetus
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Jaundice

Answer

D

Question. Lippes loop prevent contraception by
(a) preventing ovulation
(b) phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppressing sperm motility
(d) All of these

Answer

B

Question. …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… .
(a) A–Hormone releasing IUD; B–spermatogonia
(b) A–Hormone releasing IUD; B–sperms
(c) A–Sperms; B–hormonal releasing IUD
(d) A–Sperms; B–ova

Answer

B

Question. The females wanting to delay pregnancy or space children should use
(a) Femidoms
(b) IUDs
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Vaults and caps

Answer

B

Question. Oral contraceptives have hormonal preparation of
(a) progesterone
(b) oestrogen
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

C

Question. Pills have to be taken daily for period of …A… days starting preferably within first five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of …B… days, it has to be repeated in the same pattern.
(a) A–27, B–1
(b) A–21, B–7
(c) A–22, B–5
(d) A–24, B–4

Answer

B

Question. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is
(a) Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
(b) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
(c) Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
(d) Germ Cell Internal Fallopian Transfer

Answer

B

Question. During ICSI technique,
(a) fertilisation is done in vivo
(b) embryo transfer is done at 32 blastomere stage
(c) sperm directly injected into ovum
(d) All of the above

Answer

C

Question. Oral contraceptives inhibit …A… and implantation as well as quality of …B… to prevent the entry of sperms.
(a) A–ovulation, B–cervical mucus
(b) A–oogenesis, B–structure
(c) A–oogenesis, B–nucleus
(d) A–spermatogenesis, B–cervical mucus

Answer

A

Question. What is the difference in oral contraceptives and hormonal implants?
(a) They differ in their sites of implantation
(b) They differ in their duration of action
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

C

Question. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone? 
(a) Barrier method, lactational amenorrhea, pills
(b) Cu-T, pills, emergency contraceptives
(c) Pills, emergency contraceptives, barrier methods
(d) Lactational amenorrhea, pills, emergency contraceptives

Answer

D

Question. Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which
(a) small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up
(b) ovaries are removed surgically
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(d) uterus is removed surgically

Answer

A

Question. Name the part cut and tied in male sterilisation. Also, name the procedure.
(a) Vas deferens, tubectomy
(b) Vas deferens, vasectomy
(c) Vasa efferentia, tubectomy
(d) Vasa efferentia, vasectomy

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

Answer

C

Question. Difference between ZIFT and IUT lies in the
(a) methodology
(b) nature of the sperms
(c) nature of the cells
(d) number of the cells

Answer

D

Question. Specialised health care units help in diagnosis and corrective treatment of disorders which result in fertility. However, when such connections are not possible, couples are advised
(a) in vitro fertilisation
(b) Artificial insemination
(c) in vivo fertilisation
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. What is the figure given below showing in particular? 

(a) Ovarian cancer
(b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Vasectomy

Answer

C

Question. Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the most effective and reliable?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) Use of physical barriers
(c) Intra uterine devices
(d) Sterilisation techniques

Answer

D

Question. MTP stands for
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(b) Mental Trauma Phase
(c) Menstrual Trauma Pain
(d) Menstrual Temporary Pain

Answer

A

Question. MTP helps to overcome pregnancy that result due to
(a) rapes
(b) unsafe sex
(c) failure of contraceptives
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. During which phase of the pregnancy MTP is safe?
(a) 1st trimester
(b) 2nd trimester
(c) 3rd trimester
(d) 4th trimester

Answer

A

Question. MTP is of much risk in which phase of the pregnancy?
(a) 2nd trimester
(b) 1st trimester
(c) 1st week
(d) 2nd week

Answer

A

Question. IUDs stands for
(a) Inter Uterine Devices
(b) Intra Uterine Devices
(c) Inter Uterine Development
(d) Intra Uterine Development

Answer

B

Question. Example of the non-medicated IUD is
(a) Cu-T
(b) Cu-7
(c) Multiload-375
(d) Lippes loop

Answer

D

Question. MTP is being …A… to abort even normal foetus.
Specially when sex of the foetus is …B… .
Choose the correct option for A and B.
(a) A–used, B–male
(b) A–misused, B–female
(c) A–used, B–abnormal
(d) A–misused, B–male

Answer

B

Question. The other names for STIs or STDs are
(a) venereal diseases
(b) reproductive tract infections
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

C

Question. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?
(a) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(b) Syphilis and Genital herpes
(c) AIDS and Hepatitis-B
(d) Chlamydiasis and AIDS

Answer

C

Question.  STIs caused by bacteria include
(a) syphilis
(b) gonorrhoea
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) hepatitis

Answer

C

Question. Incidence of STIs are very high among persons, in the age group of
(a) 15-35 years
(b) 15-30 years
(c) 15-24 years
(d) 15-45 years

Answer

C

Question. The timely detection of STIs is hindered by which of the following factors?
(a) Absence of advanced diagnostics
(b) Social stigma attached to STIs
(c) Initial asymptomatic condition of patients
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

D

Question. The preventive measures of STIs include
(a) using condoms
(b) avoid multiple sexual partner
(c) hygienic sexual practices
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

Question. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’ 
(a) is an IUD
(b) increases the concentration of oestrogen and prevents ovulation in females
(c) blocks oestrogen receptors in the uterus preventing eggs from getting implanted
(d) is a post-coital contraceptive

Answer

C

Question. Implants (the progesterone or progesterone-oestrogen combination) are used by the females usually under the
(a) skin of the inner arm above elbow
(b) vagina
(c) upper skin of stomach
(d) cervix

Answer

A

Question. A couple can be infertile because of
(a) physical defect
(b) congenital defect
(c) psychological defect
(d) All of these

Answer

B

Question. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube

Answer

B

Question. IVF in which the early zygote with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred to the Fallopian tube is called
(a) ZIFT
(b) GIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) IUI

Answer

A

Question. The test tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques? 
(a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

Answer

D

Question. IUT Stands for
(a) Inter Uterine Transfer
(b) Intra Uterine Transfer
(c) In-Uterus Transfer
(d) None of these

Answer

B

Question. GIFT can be advised to couples where female partner is
(a) unable to produce eggs
(b) unable to support a foetus
(c) unable to provide suitable environment for fertilisation and maturation of foetus
(d) All of the above

Answer

D

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