Class 12 English Sample Paper
Refer to below provided Class 12 English Sample Paper with solutions. These Guess papers for English Class 12 have been designed based on the latest examination guidelines and paper pattern issued by CBSE. We have provided all Sample Papers for Class 12 English with answers. You can click on the links below to access the practice papers for free.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 1 Set A|
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 1 Set B|
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 1 Set C|
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 2|
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 2 Set A|
|Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 2 Set B|
Class 12 English Sample Paper Term 2
1. Read the passage given below.
1. Christiaan Neethling Barnard (8 November 1922 – 2 September 2001) was a South African cardiac surgeon who performed world’s first human-to-human heart transplant operation with his team, on 3 December 1967. It was a major historical event and a significant breakthrough for medical science.
2. Media coverage around the world of this event and subsequent transplants was front page and appeared daily for weeks and months on end, describing all aspects in detail and giving progress reports on the postoperative course of the patients. This degree of public acclaim had not been previously experienced by any other physician or surgeon and nor would it be experienced subsequently. This was in part because the dramatic nature of the operation had captured the public’s imagination, but was equally ab response to Chris Barnard’s youthful good looks and charismatic personality. Barnard’s name and that
of the University of Cape Town and Groote Schuur Hospital are inextricably associated with the first heart transplant.
3. Today, when heart transplantation has become a relatively routine and commonplace procedure, one may be inclined to underestimate Christiaan Neethling Barnard. It was Barnard’s immense courage in
undertaking this first operation. Washkansky, a 53 year old man with severe coronary insufficiency, by far from an ideal recipient, being a diabetic and a smoker with peripheral vascular disease unfortunately
succumbed from severe pneumonia and septicaemia on the 18th day post-operation.
4. Not daunted by this failure, Barnard immediately selected his second patient, a 59-year-old local dental surgeon named Philip Blaiberg. The operation was performed on 2 January 1968. On this occasion, the surgical technique was slightly modified from the approach developed in dogs by Shumway and the
Stanford group. Blaiberg did well and was the first heart transplant patient to leave hospital. Media attention was enormous and his return to a relatively normal life was followed intensely over many months.
5. It was Blaiberg’s success, perhaps more than any other single factor, that led to guarded optimism that heart transplantation would eventually prove a valuable treatment option. Blaiberg was the shining beacon, whereas the majority of other attempts at heart transplantation worldwide in the late 1960s and early 1970s seemed doomed to early failure. He eventually died 19 months after his transplant. His autopsy demonstrated severe and widespread coronary artery disease. This was the first example of transplant coronary artery disease that now dominates as the major cause of graft failure after the first
6. Barnard was also a champion of the disadvantaged and the poor, and an opponent of racism and apartheid, who welcomed its demise. He did his best to not allow racial segregation of patients within his department, in defiance of Government policy to segregate patients in hospitals according to race,as elsewhere in South Africa.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.
i. State any one trait of Dr. Barnard that is evident from paragraph 4 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer: i. Dr. Barnard was a strong headed and courageous man who went on to perform another heart transplant surgery with an improved technique despite his first failed attempt.
ii. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraph 5.
I have finally cleared my entrance exams and interviews, now I have a secure hope for a better future ahead.
Answer: ii. I have finally cleared my entrance exams and interviews, now I have a guarded optimism for a better future ahead.
iii. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that Dr. Barnard thought way ahead of his time in terms of values.
Answer: Barnard was a champion of the disadvantaged and the poor, and an opponent of racism and apartheid. He did his best to not allow racial segregation of patients within his department, in defiance of Government policy prevalent in South Africa
iv. Can you guess at what age might have Dr. Christiaan Barnard conducted his first heart transplant?
Answer: Dr. Christiaan Barnard conducted his first heart transplant when he was 45 years.
v. What does the use of the phrase ‘shining beacon’ suggest in the context of Blaiberg’s heart transplant surgery?
Answer: The word ‘Shining beacon’ suggests that the majority of other attempts at heart transplantation worldwide in the late 1960s and early 1970s seemed doomed to early failure, but it was Blaiberg’s success, perhaps more than any other single factor, that led to guarded optimism that heart transplantation would eventually prove a valuable treatment option.
vi. The media couldn’t stop raving about Dr Barnard’s unique surgery. Why did some people think that it was revolutionary?
Answer: Human-to-human heart transplant surgery was something that was unheard of at that time. Therefore,the dramatic nature of the operation had captured the public’s imagination.
vii. Why does the writer say that people may be inclined to underestimate Christiaan Neethling Barnard today?
Answer: Today heart transplantation has become a relatively routine and commonplace procedure, but it was Barnard’s immense courage in undertaking this first operation. It was a major historical event and a significant breakthrough for medical science.
viii. Select a suitable phrase from paragraph 2 to complete the following sentence appropriately.
Most of the beauty pageant winners may be average in looks but they all have a ___________ that makes them stand out.
Answer: Most of the beauty pageant winners may be average in looks but they all have a charismatic personality that makes them stand out.
ix. Analyse why Washkansky couldn’t make it past his heart transplant surgery?
Answer: Washkansky was a 53-year-old man with severe coronary insufficiency, by far from an ideal recipient,being a diabetic and a smoker with peripheral vascular disease. He unfortunately succumbed from severe pneumonia and septicaemia on the 18th day post-operatively.
2. Read the passage given below.
1. The idea that coffee is bad for heart pops up periodically. It was found that regularly drinking very strong coffee could sharply increase cholesterol levels. Researchers even isolated fatlike chemicals, cafestol and kahweol, responsible for the rise.
2. It turned out that the European brewing method—boiling water sits on the coffee grounds for several minutes before straining – produces high concentrations of cafestol and kahweol. By contrast, the filter and percolation methods remove all but a trace of these chemicals. Moreover, the studies involved large amounts of coffee, five to six cups a day.
3. Research has also shown that regular, moderate coffee drinking does not dangerously raise blood pressure. And studies have failed to substantiate fears that coffee might trigger abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias) in healthy people. “For heart disease, I think the issue is closed,” says Meir Stampfer,
an epidemiologist at Harvard who has studied many aspects of coffee and health. “Coffee drinking at reasonable levels is unrelated to heart risk.”
4. The studies on coffee and cancer have focused on three organs and are reassuring. You may remember a brief coffee scare in the early 1980s when a single study linked coffee with pancreatic cancer. A false alarm: many studies since then have shown that the association is either extremely weak or non-existent.
If there’s a connection between coffee and bladder cancer, it possibly applies just to coffee junkies. A reanalysis of ten European studies found an increased risk only among people who drank ten or more cups a day. And studies show that coffee seems to have no adverse influence on the risk of colon cancer.
5. The question now arises: how much to drink? Those with heat burn and anxiety may want to see if cutting back coffee improves their condition. For most people, however, there’s virtually no risk in consuming up to three normal cups a day. Harvard’s Stampfer tries to keep his coffee drinking irregular enough to avoid habituation: “That way, I can get a buzz when I feel like it.”
6. The FDA recommends that healthy adults limit their caffeine intake to a maximum of 400 milligrams (mg) a day, about 4 or 5 cups of coffee. This amount is not associated with negative effects. There is no set limit for children, but the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) discourages the consumption of caffeine and other stimulants by children and adolescents. The amount of caffeine included in some common foods and beverages are:
• One 8-ounce cup of coffee: 95 to 200 mg
• One 12-ounce can of cola: 35 to 45 mg
• One 8-ounce energy drink: 70 to 150 mg
• One 8-ounce cup of tea: 14 to 60 mg
7. Decaffeinated cola and soft drinks contain no caffeine, but decaffeinated coffee is not caffeine-free.
“Energy drinks” contain varying amounts of caffeine. Additional products are now appearing on the market, from “psyched up” oatmeal to “wired” waffles. These have raised concerns, especially regarding the potential impact on children and adolescents. The FDA has questioned the safety of this practice.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below.
i. What does researcher Meir Stampfer mean by “For heart disease, I think the issue is closed”?
Answer: Research has shown that regular, moderate coffee drinking does not dangerously raise blood pressure.
And studies have failed to substantiate fears that coffee might trigger abnormal heart rhythms in healthy people.
ii. How much caffeine does 12 ounces of cola contain according to the table provided in the passage?
Answer: 12 ounces of cola contain 35 to 45 mg of caffeine
iii. With reference to the table provided in the passage, write one conclusion about consumption of energy drinks.
Answer: Energy drinks contain varying amounts of caffeine, one 8-ounce energy drink can have about 70 to 150 mg of caffeine in it.
iv. Why has FDA recommended against the consumption of products with unregulated amounts of caffeine?
Answer: Additional products are now appearing on the market, from “psyched up” oatmeal to “wired” waffles.
These have raised concerns, especially regarding the potential impact on children and adolescents. The FDA has questioned the safety of this practice.
v. Which method removes the chemicals cafestol and kahweol from coffee?
Answer: The filter and percolation methods remove all but a trace of the chemicals cafestol and kahweol
vi. How much caffeine intake should the healthy adults must limit according to FDA recommendation?
Answer: The FDA recommends that healthy adults limit their caffeine intake to a maximum of 400 mg a day,about 4 or 5 cups of coffee
vii. Identify a word from paragraph 5 that states dependency on coffee for caffeine boost can make someone accustomed to it.
Answer: Habituation states the dependency on coffee for caffeine boost can make someone accustomed to it.
3. You are Mr. Nilesh. Write a formal reply in about 50 words accepting the invitation of Mr. & Mrs. Verma’s daughter’s wedding.
Answer: 3. 44/1 Gulmarg Street
1st November, 20XX
Subject: Acceptance of the invitation of wedding
Dear Mr. and Mrs. Verma,
I have received your invitation of the marriage of your daughter, Karuna on 25th November, 20XX at
8:00 p.m. Thank you for inviting me. I confirm my presence at the venue at the scheduled time.
4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.A. You came across an advertisement in ‘The Times of India’ regarding the post of an animator in Mumbai.
Draft an application in about 120-150 words for the post of the same in response to the advertisement giving your resume. You are Garvita/ Garvit of B-121, Street Park Lane, Kolkata.
Sitaara Edutech Animator Required Needed a young and dynamic animator to create engaging and on-brand graphic and animations for various e-Learning courses and short films.
Experienced candidates with specialisation in animations software and a creative flair preferred. Fluency in Adobe Creative Suit and English is a must.
Apply within five days of the advertisement to the HR Manager.
B. You are Manoj/ Manju, an active member of the Animal Lovers Society which works for the welfare of
animals by preventing cruelty to them. Recently you visited Animal Care Home. You were pleasantly
surprised to see the good treatment given to the animals. Write a report in 120-150 words on your visit.
You may use the cues along with your own ideas.
• Campaign to raise awareness on the Animal Lovers Society
• Services and facilities at the home
• Medical treatment of animals
• Care of animals at the home and strays
• Your thoughts about what you witnessed at the home
Answer: 4.A. B- 121, Street Park Lane
17th April, 20XX
Subject: Application for the post of animator
In response to the advertisement published in the newspaper, ‘The Times of India’ for the post of
animator, I would like to apply for the same. After clearing All India Common Entrance Examination for
Design (CEED), I did six months certificate program in domains like visual effects (VFX) specialisation,
digital composting, and video editing.
I possess the foremost skills required in animation careers i.e. genuine interest in art and design which
helps in bringing out the creative and artistic expression that will allow static images to develop visual
graphics and movements. I believe that all these qualities will fulfill your requirement you need in a
If selected, I assure you that I would contribute my best to the work for your company. For reference, I
am enclosing my resume as under.
Name : Garvit/Garvita
Father’s Name : D.K. Gandhi
Date of Birth : 21st October, 1993
Address : 121, Street Park Lane, Kolkata-XXXXXX
: Phone- 98XXXXXXXX
E-Mail Address : [email protected]
Marital Status : Unmarried
Nationality : Indian
Educational Qualifications : (i) Senior Secondary from Tagore Public School, Kolkata
(ii) Graduation in designing & Arts from Govt. run institute
(iii) Diploma in Character Animation from Adam College
Experience 2 years at HOBNOB Enterprises, Mumbai
Strengths : Sound IT skills and the ability to concentrate
Languages : Good command over spoken and written Hindi & English.
Hobbies : Drawing and Sketching
References : 1. Ashok Singh, Manager, Accenture. Pune, Ph-XXXXXXXXXX
2. Minal Sathe, Crox, Delhi. Ph- XXXXXXXXXX
Hoping for a favourable response.
4.B. Answer: Visit to The Animal Care Home By Manoj/Manju
Recently, Animal Lovers Society was invited by the city Animal Care Home for a visit where an opportunity to have a look upon the working of the organisation was given.
It is a home to abandoned pets, rescued animals and the ones injured on the streets. There were many old animals as well. It was astonishing to see the wonderful care being taken of the helpless animals.
They have a family-like environment for them. This helps them to heal faster and stay happy.
The animal home has all the facilities ranging from well-equipped medical room to a veterinary surgeon.
They provide 24 hours veterinary care, ambulance services, inpatient facilities and adoption of dogs and cats. They are now building a medical centre which will consist of an OPD, operation theatre, X-ray and scanning facilities for street animals. Regular check-ups of those unwell by a team of veterinary
specialists are carried out. The surroundings are animal-friendly as well. They are not being ruthlessly kept in cages. They have green surroundings with enough space for them to play and nurture. Animal Care Home is doing an amazing job by understanding and fulfilling the needs of those who can’t speak for themselves. The experience was an overwhelming one.
5. Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.
i. What is the underlying idea behind the wizard’s taking the beating and tamely changing the rose smell?
Answer: The author wishes to highlight the idea that mothers are always right and that we should accept what is natural. The wizard also sees the point and tamely changes the Skunk’s rose smell into his natural Skunk smell.
ii. What was the conflict of Gandhiji?
Answer: Gandhiji’s conflict was of discharging his duties. On one hand, he did not want to set a bad example by breaking the law, on the other hand, he was to listen to the voice of his conscience and serve the human beings.
iii. Why was the peddler surprised when he knocked on the door of the cottage?
Answer: It was the night time and the peddler couldn’t imagine that he would be welcomed anywhere. But when he was provided food and shelter and treated like a guest at the crofter’s house, he was surprised. The crofter was a lonely man and he needed company.
iv. Why are the tigers of aunt Jennifer described as denizens of a world of green?
Answer: iv. Aunt Jennifer’s tigers are brave, fearless and chivalric. They live in the green forests freely and gracefully and are known for their strength, boldness and power.
v. How did Mr. Lamb pass his leisure time?
Answer: Mr. Lamb had a garden in which there were trees and plants of apples, pears, weeds and flowers. He used to sit in his garden and talk to those who came into his garden. He used to make toffees with honey.
vi. In the poem, A Thing of Beauty, Keats associated grandeur with the mighty dead. Comment.
Answer: People celebrate the grand deeds and achievements of the mighty dead. Grandeur is associated with them because their achievements make their lives extraordinary. It becomes a source of an inspiration for the living to leave a legacy to be venerated after they are long gone.
6. ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.
i. What do you understand by “unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways” as stated by Keats in his poem- A Thing of Beauty?
Answer: In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, beautiful and pleasant things have been referred to as flowery bands.
It is only those things which have beauty of some or the other kind that bind us to this Earth, or in a way, keep us going. The memory of our beautiful experiences helps us strengthen our bond with the Earth. The message that these lines convey is that the world is full of sorrow, sadness and depression.
People have become selfish, and there is a scarcity of noble people.
Despite this, life is possible because there are some beautiful things around, which help us to look towards the positive side of life. It is the beauty of these things which brings a smile on our face and gives us happiness in our lives. Today, there are few people who can rise above petty differences and
be generous towards others. These days people are mostly selfish and do not think about others. The unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways refer to the trials and tribulations in our life, and the dishonest and unfair means people adopt to achieve their goals.
ii. The share cropping system was prevalent in Champaran on a wide scale. Comment.
Answer: Most of the arable land in Champaran district was divided into large estates owned by Englishmen and worked by Indian tenants. The chief commercial crop was indigo. The landlords compelled all tenants to plant 15 percent of their holdings with indigo and surrender the entire indigo harvest as rent. This was done by long term contract. Meanwhile the landlords learned that Germany had developed synthetic indigo. Therefore, they obtained agreements from the share croppers to pay them compensation for being released from the 15 per cent arrangement. This system irked the peasants. When the information of synthetic indigo reached the ears of illiterate peasants who had signed the share cropping arrangement, they wanted their money back. A long battle under the leadership of Gandhiji was ensued and landlords agreed to return 25 percent of the compensation to the peasants. This way share cropping system came to an end.
iii. What clues did the Governor get from the answer sheet of Evans?
Answer: The answer-sheet had been cleverly attached to the last page of the question paper by Evans to outwit his adversaries and mislead the police. It was from his answer-sheet that the police got the clue that Evans had hit McLeery whom Evans was himself impersonating. McLeery showed a photocopied sheet to the Governor which had been cleverly superimposed on the last page of the German question paper.
The six-figure reference landed him in the middle of Chipping Norton. The Governor decoded it for Newsbury and by putting together the six-figure reference, the index and centre number 313/271 and with the help of the ‘Ordinance Survey Map of Oxfordshire’ he was able to locate Evans in the middle
of Chipping Norton. The correction slip provided him with the name of the hotel, ‘The Golden Lion’where Evans was staying. So, Evans was trampled in his own game as he left evidences which helped in his arrest. He made things easier as he left the question paper behind in the cell. The clues the Governor
got from it were sufficient to help him trace Evans.