Please see below Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set B with solutions. We have provided Class 10 Social Science Sample Papers with solutions designed by Social Science teachers for Class 10 based on the latest examination pattern issued by CBSE. We have provided the following sample paper for Term 1 Class 10 Social Science with answers. You will be able to understand the type of questions which can come in the upcoming exams.

CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Set B

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)

1. Which nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian Vision?
(a) Italy
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) Britain

2. The Young Italy Movement was related to which of the following?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of the Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educate the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time.
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

3. Why did the Frankfurt Parliament fail to achieve its goal? Identify from the given options.
(a) Women were excluded from the membership.
(b) Did not have the support of Peasants.
(c) Kaiser William refused to accept the crown and opposed the assembly.
(d) None of the above

4. Why Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity?
(a) As it ensures protection of all inhabitants.
(b) As it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) As it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
(d) As it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.

5. Why a large number of people were hostile to the Napoleonic Code? Identify the correct reason from the given options.
(a) It destroyed special privileges of the rulers.
(b) Administrative changes didn’t go hand in hand with political freedom.
(c) It was not suitable for all.
(d) It stood for the abolition of trade restrictions.

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in
(a) Ragi- Punjab
(b) Maize- Uttar Pradesh
(c) Coffee- Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Jowar- Kerala

7. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in ………… .
(a) Himalayas
(b) Baba Budan Hill
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Aravali Hills

8. Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai?
(a) Black Soil
(b) Alluvial Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
(d) Red Soil

9. How will diversification of Indian cropping pattern help?
(i) It will attract investment from people.
(ii) It will replenish fertility of the soil.
(iii) It will save the environment.
(iv) It will supply nitrogen to the soil.
(v) It will increase incomes.
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (v)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (i), (iv) and (v)

10. Which of the following is not a feature of unorganised sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(b) Rules and regulations are not followed.
(c) Jobs here are high paid and often regular.
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays and medical leave.

11. Who has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects?
(a) Municipalities
(b) Union Government
(c) State Government
(d) Both (b) and (c)

12. What happened if there is a clash between the laws made by the Centre and a state on a subject in a Concurrent List?
(a) The State law prevails.
(b) The Central law prevails.
(c) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.
(d) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.

13. In democracy, power is not shared with which of the following?
(a) People who live in the democracy
(b) Leaders of the government
(c) Social Groups
(d) Neighbouring countries

14. Identify the main objective of the Panchayati Raj System.
(a) Rural development
(b) Decentralised democracy
(c) Distribution of powers
(d) Represent rural people

15. Tamilians during 1980’s formed various political organisations. Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) Their demand for separate state was denied.
(b) Their demand for separate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied.
(c) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied.
(d) All of the above

16. Federal power-sharing is more effective nowadays. Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) States today are more conscious of their rights.
(b) It is the age of coalition governments at the Centre.
(c) Centre today depends more on states.
(d) There are more powerful leaders at the state level.

17. Power sharing is one of the foundational principles on which democratic rule it is based upon. Choose the correct option which justifies the given statement.
(a) The system of checks and balances.
(b) The separation of power at different levels.
(c) A Kind of balancing power.
(d) The spirit of democracy.

18. Which of the following is a demerit of using average income as a measure of development?
(a) Average income fails to indicate the economic stability of a country.
(b) Calculation of Average income is a tedious process.
(c) Average income does not indicate disparity in income level.
(d) Average income is always lower than the actual income of people.

19. Which among the following is a correct method to tackle the problem of underemployment in a country?
(a) The government should provide unemployment benefits to citizens.
(b) Identify, promote and locate industries and services where a large number of people can be employed.
(c) The government should close down industries with lower employment levels.
(d) The government should focus on developing jobs in the unorganised sector as most of the people are employed in unorganised sector.

20. What kinds of workers are employed in the tertiary sector?
(a) Unskilled
(b) Only skilled
(c) Semi-skilled
(d) Both skilled and semi-skilled

21. Which among the following is not a feature of an underdeveloped country?
(a) Agriculture as the major occupation
(b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty
(d) Mass illiteracy

22. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?
(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically.
(b) Preventing infectious diseases.
(c) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation.
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming.

23. Which sector acts as an aid or support to the other sectors in the economy?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Allied Sector

24. Which of the following does not relate to tertiary sector?
(a) Health services
(b) Financial services
(c) Banking
(d) Petroleum refining

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)

25. Following image depicts the fear of repression which drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Which of the following event is marked as per the given image? Identify.

(a) Signing of Treaty of Vienna
(b) Founding of Young Europe in Berne, 1833
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini unifying Italy
(d) William I unifying Germany

26. Which of the following options is correct about Giuseppe Garibaldi?
(i) He was the Chief Minister of Italy.
(ii) He was the King of Sardinia-Piedmont.
(iii) He was a revolutionary who established Young Italy and Young Europe secret societies.
(iv) He was a freedom fighter who helped Cavour to unify Italy.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)

27. Why did most ‘conservative regimes’ impose censorship laws to control printed material associated with the French Revolution in 1815? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options.
(a) Because conservative regimes were autocratic and wanted to preserve traditional institutions like church, monarchy and social hierarchies.
(b) Because freedom of press would lead to wide circulation of revolutionary ideas.
(c) Because conservative regimes were against the liberal notions.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

28. Which among the following is considered as an outcome/s of Non-sharing of power in a state?
(a) Peace among all the communities.
(b) Negation of the very spirit of democracy.
(c) Political stability.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
(i) It is a staple food crop of a majority of the people of India.
(ii) It is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature, high humidity with high annual rainfall of above 100 cm.
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Maize

30. What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as? Identify the correct option.
(a) Soil composition
(b) Soil texture
(c) Soil erosion
(d) Soil profile

31. Consider the following statements regarding pulses as a crop and select the answer using the codes given below.
(i) Pulses are grown both in Kharif and Rabi crops.
(ii) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities.
(iii) Pulses are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(iv) Pulses are leguminous crops.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

32. What happened when the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe?
(a) People favoured these events.
(b) People did not know how to react.
(c) Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
(d) There was confusion and dissatisfaction among the people.

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Although judges are appointed by the Executive, they can check functioning of the executive or laws made by the Legislatures.
Reason (R) Judges are superior and more experienced than the Executive.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following states with the type of slash and burn agriculture.

Codes
(a) A → 1, B → 2, C → 4, D → 3
(b) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3
(c) A → 3, B → 1, C → 2, D → 4
(d) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1

35. In which part of Sri Lanka, political organisations started the demand for the creation of an independent Tamil Eelum by 1980’s?
(a) Northern Parts
(b) Eastern Parts
(c) Western Parts
(d) Both (a) and (b)

36. When was the boundary of several old states were changed for the first time after the Independence?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1953
(d) 1967

37. What features of democracy could be realised with linguistic reorganisation of the states? Choose the correct option.
(i) Recognition and accommodation of diversities.
(ii) Inception of isolationist tendencies.
(iii) Fear of linguistic division of the country.
(iv) Equal respect to all social groups.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv)
(d) Both (i) and (iv)

38. Consider the following statements regarding the sources of revenue in a Federal system?
(i) States are provided with unlimited financial powers.
(ii) States are dependent for revenue on the Central Government.
(iii) The Central Government has no financial autonomy.
(iv) The sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the Constitution of India to ensure its financial autonomy.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason (R) More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following.

41. Read the given table and answer the following question.

As per the data, the literacy rate is highest in Kerala while the infant mortality rate is highest in Bihar. What does it show?
(a) Most of the people living in Kerala and Bihar have good living conditions.
(b) Both Bihar and Kerala lack basic necessities of life.
(c) The standard of living is better in Kerala as compared to Bihar.
(d) The standard of living is better in Bihar as compared to Kerala.

42. Identify the sector from the given information.
(i) Activities which are included in this sector are undertaken by directly using natural resources.
(ii) This sector employs most number of people.
(a) Tertiary Sector
(b) Primary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Public Sector

43. Iqbal along with five other members of his family worked as a farmer and produced 50 tons of wheat. Due to some dispute in the family, two members opted out of family business, but still remaining members of the family are able to produce 50 tons of wheat. Can you identify which type of unemployment the members of the family are facing?
(a) Seasonal employment
(b) Disguised employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment

44. How one can generate employment opportunities in urban areas?
(a) Increase vocational education.
(b) Improve local and inter-city transportation facilities.
(c) Increase reservations in jobs.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Economic development of a nation depends mainly on the richness, development and management of resources.
Reason (R) Over-population results in over-exploitation of resources.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. Why the Tertiary sector is becoming an important sector in India? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) Because it provides basic services to the people.
(b) Because basic facilities like public transportation, health comes under public sector.
(c) Because it works on profit maximisation.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

Each power-Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary was keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans, and extending its own control over the area. This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World War. Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914. But meanwhile, many countries in the world which had been colonised by the European powers in the 19th Century began to oppose imperial domination. The anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were nationalist, in the sense that they all struggled to form independent nation-states and were inspired by a sense of collective national unity, forged in confrontation with imperialism. European ideas of Nationalism were nowhere replicated, for people everywhere developed their own specific variety of Nationalism. But the idea that societies should be organised into ‘nation-states’ came to be accepted as natural and universal.

47. Nationalism which emerged as a force in the late 19th Century means which of the following?
(a) Strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(b) Strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(c) Strong patriotism for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) Equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

48. The power struggle in Europe by the big powers in the late 19th Century led to what outcomes?
(a) A series of wars in the region and finally the First World War in 1914.
(b) Opposition to imperial domination in the colonies.
(c) The idea that societies should be organised into nation states.
(d) All of the above

49. Why do European nations colonise other nations? Identify the reason from the given options.
(i) Need for raw materials
(ii) Desire to learn about other cultures
(iii) Surplus of manufactured goods
(iv) Fear of Asian dominance
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv)
(d) Both (ii) and (iv)

50. In general late 19th century imperialism ………… .
(a) Involved complete independent entrepreneurial activity by merchants and traders.
(b) It was built entirely on trade.
(c) It gave rise to new patterns of settlement and social discipline.
(d) None of the above

51. By the late 19th century nationhood was linked to which of the following?
(a) Economic power
(b) Political dominance
(c) Empire building
(d) All of these

52. Which statement best expresses the motive for the 19th Century European Imperialism?
(a) Imperialism would benefit the economies of the colonial powers.
(b) European nations would benefit from some aspects of the conquered nations culture.
(c) European leaders believed imperialism was an effective method of reducing the number of wars.
(d) Livig space was needed for the excess population in Western Europe.

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

India is an agriculturally important country. Two-thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities. Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most of the food that we consume. Besides food grains, it also produces raw material for various industries. Moreover, some agricultural products like tea, coffee, spices, etc. are also exported. Agriculture is an age-old economic activity in our country. Over these years, cultivation methods have changed significantly depending upon the characteristics of physical environment, technological know-how and socio-cultural practices. Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type.

53. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) India is an agriculturally important country.
Reason (R) India has vast fertile plains for agriculture and economic activities.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

54. Why is most of the population engaged in agricultural activities? Identify the reason from given options.
(a) People are poor here.
(b) India doesn’t have sufficient resources to establish industries.
(c) India is a populous country so demand for food is increasing.
(d) All of the above

55. Why primary sector is important for a country like India? Choose the appropriate reason from the given options.
(a) Primary sector contributes a high share to the GDP of India.
(b) It is the most labour absorbing sector of Indian economy e.g. agriculture.
(c) It covers agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry etc. all these contribute to the Indian economy.
(d) All of the above

56. Which of the following industries is based on agricultural raw material? Choose the correct option.
(a) Textiles industry
(b) Sugar industry
(c) Vegetable oil industry
(d) All of these

57. Tea and coffee come under which type of farming? Identify from the given options.
(a) Intensive Subsistence Farming
(b) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(c) Plantation Farming
(d) None of these

58. Agricultural cultivation methods undergo a change with time. Identify the factor which is responsible for such a change.
(a) Variation in crops
(b) Seasonal changes
(c) Development of technology
(d) Government intervention

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

59. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Wheat
(d) Rubber

60. Which of the following dams is depicted by ‘B’ in the given map?
(a) Salal Dam
(b) Tehri Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(d) Tungabhadra Dam