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For Class 4 to Class 12

Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set B

Please see below Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper Term 1 Set B with solutions. We have provided Class 12 Political Science Sample Papers with solutions designed by Political Science teachers for Class 12 based on the latest examination pattern issued by CBSE. We have provided the following sample paper for Term 1 Class 12 Political Science with answers. You will be able to understand the type of questions which can come in the upcoming exams.

CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Set B

Section – A

1. The Left ideology in politics signifies
(a) Those who are in favour of poor.
(b) Those who believe in free competition.
(c) Those who are not in support of government policies.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

A

2. Which of the statements given below in incorrect regarding drawback of Soviet System.
(a) The party refused to fulfil the needs of the people in fifteen different republics.
(b) Soviet System was based on two party system.
(c) The Soviet Union lagged behind the West in technology, infrastructure and in fulfilling the need of political or economic aspirations of citizen.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

B

3. Consider the following statements about Gamal Abdel Nasser:
(i) He espoused the causes of Arab nationalism, socialism and anti-imperialism
(ii) He organised the Bandung Conference.
(iii) He nationalised the Suez Canal.
(iv) He was overthrown in a military coup.
Which of the given statements is correct?
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)   

Answer

C

4. India signed the Treaty of Friendship in August 1971 with the USSR for how many years?
(a) 10 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years   

Answer

B

5. The Communist Party staged an abortive coup in August 1991, against which Soviet leader?
(a) Boris Yelstin
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) Leonid Brezhnev
(d) Joseph Stalin   

Answer

B

6. Which of the following statements given below is/are correct about the Soviet leader Vladimir Lenin?
(a) He was an outstanding theoretician and practitioner of Marxism.
(b) He began rapid industrialisation and forcible collectivisation of agriculture.
(c) He proposed Asian Collective Security System.
(d) He was the first elected President of Russia.   

Answer

A

7. Which among the following leader is credited with the creation of Indian National Army?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Satyendra Nath Bose
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad   

Answer

A

8. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Tajikistan conflict is/are incorrect?
(a) The main zone of conflict was the south zone.
(b) The civil war started in 1991
(c) It was a decade long civil war fuelled primarily by a clash between ethnic groups.
(d) The civil war came to an end in 2001   

Answer

B

9. The Tibetan spiritual leader Dalai Lama was accompanied by which Chinese Premier during the official Chinese visit to India in 1956?
(a) Zhou Enlai
(b) Hua Guofeng
(c) Zhu Rongji
(d) Zhao Ziyang   

Answer

A

10. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?
(a) Security Council
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) International Labour Organisation
(d) International Court of Justice     

Answer

C

11. The UN Security Council has how many permanent members?
(a) Ten
(b) Five
(c) Fifteen
(d) Four   

Answer

B

12. The International Atomic Energy Agency located in ………… .
(a) Prague
(b) Danube
(c) Vienna
(d) Bern   

Answer

C

13. The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which led to the creation of ….….….……. States and Union Territories.
(a) 12 ; 04
(b) 13 ; 05
(c) 14 ; 06
(d) 15 ; 07     

Answer

C

14. The accession of which princely states was resolved after a plebiscite that confirmed people’s desire to join India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Junagarh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kashmir     

Answer

B

15. Arrange the following in sequence.
(i) Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh came into being.
(ii) The State of Nagaland was created.
(iii) Territories of Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were separated from the larger Punjab State.
(iv) Creation of States-Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.
Codes
(a) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)     

Answer

B

16. Which among the following country declared that the Warsaw Pact members are free to decide their own future?
(a) United States
(b) Soviet Union
(c) China
(d) Germany 

Answer

B

17. Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
(a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.
(b) It supported state-ownership of industry.
(c) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(d) It strongly supported the idea of planning.     

Answer

B

18. Five Year Plans was opted by the Planning Commission of India as it followed the model of ………………… .
(a) USA
(b) United Kingdom
(c) USSR
(d) China   

Answer

C

19. The Indian national highway system was introduced for the first time in ……………… Five Year Plan.
(a) 4th
(b) 5th
(c) 6th
(d) 7th   

Answer

C

20. Who among the following was involved in drafting the First Five Year Plan?
(a) KN Raj
(b) PC Mahalanobis
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these   

Answer

A

21. Which of the following statement (s) is/ are correct about the Bangladesh war, 1971?
(i) The war conditions led India to sign a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the USA in 1971.
(ii) The Shimla Agreement between Lal Bahadur Shastri and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formalised the return of peace in July 1972.
(iii) The US and China supported Pakistan.
(iv) India retaliated against the Pakistan army with an attack mainly using the air force, navy and the army.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)   

Answer

C

22. Which of the following statements about India’s nuclear policy is/are correct?
(a) The India Nuclear Programme was started in the late 1940.
(b) It was started under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
(c) Nehru was against nuclear power and pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

D

23. The Soviet Union and Communist China responded to have close relations with which regional countries?
(a) North Vietnam
(b) North Korea
(c) Iraq
(d) All of these   

Answer

D

24. Which part of the Indian Constitution echoes the goal of accomplishing security through the maintenance of peace of India’s foreign policy?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(d) All of these   

Answer

C

Section – B

25. What among the following can be regarded as the main advantage of the Cold War to the contemporary world?
(a) It benefited the newly decolonised countries by more powers.
(b) It led to the emergence of the Non-alignment movement which offered newly decolonised people the option of not joining either alliance.
(c) It promoted different ideologies to the world.
(d) It helped the countries to choose the most suitable ideology as per their interest.   

Answer

B

26. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (a) “Non-Alignment does not imply neutrality of equi-distance.”
Reason (R) Non-Alignment is not a policy of ‘fleeing away’ or being neutral from the superpowers rather it stood for playing an active role in mediating between the two rival alliances for the cause of peace and stability.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.   

Answer

A

27. Why did the Allies want to remain tied with one of the Superpowers?
(i) To stand still in the world economy.
(ii) To get the benefits in case of emergency or trade purposes.
(iii) To enjoy being a part of the Superpower bloc.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)   

Answer

A

28. Why were most of the Non-Aligned countries categorised as Least Developed Countries (LDCs)?
(a) The economic development of these countries was very low and their natural resources were being exploited by developed countries.
(b) They were dependent on richer countries for their sustainable development.
(c) They could not participate in international economic institutions or they had a little participation.
(d) All of the above 

Answer

D

29. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (A) The end of the USSR does not mean the end of socialism.
Reason (R) Cuba, Venezuela, North Korea, China, these are communist countries which are still in existence after the demise of the USSR.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.   

Answer

A

30. Development means becoming more modern and modern was about becoming more like industrialised countries of the West. What are the factors associated with Modernisation?
(a) Ideas of Growth
(b) Material progress
(c) Scientific rationality
(d) All of these   

Answer

D

31. …… created the global fund to fight AIDs, tuberculosis and malaria. He established the Peacebuilding Commission and Human Rights Council in 2005.
(a) U Thant
(b) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(c) Kofi A Annan
(d) Kurt Waldheim   

Answer

C

32. Disintegration of the USSR came as a surprise because …………….
(i) It emerged as a great power after the Second World War.
(ii) It had vast energy resources.
(iii) In the arms race, the Soviet Union managed to match the US.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)   

Answer

D

33. Why does the Veto Power of permanent members of the Security Council cannot be abolished?
(a) No permanent member would be allowed to do this.
(b) To maintain the interest of big powers in the functioning of the UN, veto power is significantly important and without active participation of the permanent powers, the UN itself will become irrelevant.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above   

Answer

C

34. Though the UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation. What could have been the most appropriate reason for this approach?
(a) To enforce cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation,crime rate etc. Thus, it works for the cooperation and protection of basic rights and conditions for survival.
(b) Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without international organisations such as the UN.
(c) The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the problem in the best possible way. It is the only organisation which consists of 193 member states.
(d) All of the above     

Answer

D

35. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (A) The period when the nuclear test was conducted was as difficult period in domestic politics.
Reason (R) Indian politics is generally marked by a broad agreement among the parties on national intergration, protection of international boundaries and question of national interest.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.     

Answer

B

36. ‘‘Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council’’. This is so because the Security Council plays a crucial role in the functioning of the UN. In the light of the given statement, what among the following can be the suggestive reforms in the Security Council?
(a) Permanent members category from industrialised developed countries which should be balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members.
(b) The UN charter does not give a privileged position to permanent members in order to bring and ensure stability all over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above 

Answer

A

37. Why developing country like India supported the Soviet Model of development?
(a) Due to the economic concerns of newly independent India.
(b) Due to the Soviet ideology of welfarism.
(c) Due to the state intervention policies of the Soviet Union.
(d) Due to people’s pressure.   

Answer

B

38. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (a) NITI Aayog is a better functionary body than the Planning Commission of India.
Reason (R) Planning Commission was set-up in 1950 by a simple resolution as an advisory body to the Government of India while NITI Aayog is a constitutional body acting as a think tank for the government of India.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.     

Answer

C

39. What among the following is/are can be regarded as a true feature of ‘mixed economy’ in the Indian context?
(a) Both public and private sectors work for economic development.
(b) The public sector has greater responsibility for bringing balanced and equal development.
(c) The means of production owned by the private sector are regulated by the state to ensure fairness in the market and protection of consumers’ interest.
(d) All of the above     

Answer

D

40. Indian economic development has gone through three broad phases in the most appropriate sequence, namely……………………………….
(a) Public Infrastructure; Industrial Control ; Reform and De-control*
(b) Physical Infrastructure; Agricultural Reforms; Forex Regulation
(c) Social Infrastructure; Land Reforms; Industrialisation
(d) Poverty Eradication; Industrialisation; Liberalisation.     

Answer

A

41. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (a) India was born in very difficult circumstances. Perhaps no other country by then was born in a situation more difficult than that of India in 1947.
Reason (R) Freedom came with the partition of the country. The year 1947 was a year of unprecedented violence and trauma of displacement.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

Answer

A

42. Consider the following effects of Green Revolution.
(i) In many parts stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for leftwing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
(ii) Green Revolution resuluted in the rise of what is called the middle peasant sections.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)   

Answer

C

43. Which of the following examples shows that democracy in India is associated with plurality of ideas and acceptance of differences?
(a) Religious tolerance and language adoption
(b) Political instability
(c) Separatist movements
(d) Protests and mass movements   

Answer

A

44. “The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic”. Which of the following statements justify the given statement?
(i) Setting up of the States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 by the Central Government to redraw the boundaries of the states.
(ii) The Commission accepted that the boundaries of the State should reflect the boundaries of different languages.
(iii) India followed democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only. It was hoped that if the people accept the regional and linguistic claims of all regions, the threat of division and separatism would be reduced.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) None of these   

Answer

C

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct options.
Assertion (A) India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and also refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
Reason (R) India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes ‘no first use’ and reiterates India’s commitment to global, verifiable and non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear weapons free world.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.   

Answer

B

46. ………. is the former Prime Minister of Portugal from 1995 to 2020. He also served as President of Socialist International. He is serving as …………. Secretary General of United Nations.
(a) Kofi A. Annan eight
(b) Ban Ki Moon, ninth
(c) Antonio Guterres, ninth
(d) Kurt Waldheim, eight     

Answer

C

47. Why relations with Bangladesh are crucial for India?
(a) It’s an important factor for the success of the ‘Look East Policy’ of India.
(b) For development of North-Eastern India.
(c) Security issues
(d) All of the above 

Answer

D

48. India’s foreign policy with Israel remained unexplored despite the fact that the two nations gained independence from the British in 1947 and 1948 respectively. Which of the following led to a start of formal diplomatic relations between the two countries?
(a) Opening of Israeli Embassy in India in 1992.
(b) Visits of the two heads of government.
(c) The Israel Space Agency and the Indian Space Research Organisation signed an agreement to foster partnership in the development of electric propulsion systems for small satellites.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

A

Section – C

49. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following US Presidents grappling with the Vietnam issue is depicted as a cartoon in the given image?
(a) George Bush senior
(b) Bill Cinton
(c) Lyndon B Johnson
(d) Richard Nixon 

Answer

C

50. Study the following given picture and answer the following question:

What is not true about the poster in the given image?
(a) It was created by the US Office of War Information.
(b) It features the flags of all nations that were part of the Allied Forces.
(c) It was created during the Second World War as per the Declaration by the United Nations of 1942.
(d) None of the above   

Answer

D

51. Study the following given picture and answer the following question:

The given picture manifests dealing with which one of the following issues by the State Reorganisation Commission?
(a) Linguism
(b) Terrorism
(c) Naxalism
(d) None of these 

Answer

A

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The first nuclear explosion was carried out by India in May, 1974. Nehru had great faith in Science and Technology for building modern India rapidly. An important part of his industrialisation plans was the Nuclear Programme in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J Bhabha. Nehru was against nuclear weapons, so he advocated for comprehensive nuclear disarmament in the world. When Communist China conducted a nuclear test in October 1964, the five nuclear powered and permanent members of the UN Security Council– USA, USSR, UK, France and China (Taiwan representing China) imposed the nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) on the rest of the world. India termed NPT as discriminatory and had refused to sign it. India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes. When India conducted the first nuclear test, it was called a peaceful explosion.

52. India’s nuclear programme was a part of its ……………….
(a) Industrialisation Plans
(b) Foreign Policy
(c) Science and Technology Policy
(d) Defence Policy   

Answer

A

53. The five nuclear powered and permanent members of the UN Security Council imposed the nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) on the rest of the world in October 1964 in the wake of a nuclear test conducted by which of the following countries?
(a) France
(b) Communist China
(c) Taiwan
(d) India   

Answer

B

54. Who contributed his technical expertise and leadership to the nuclear programme of India in its naive or formative years?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(d) Vikram Sarabhai   

Answer

C

55. When was the first nuclear test done by India?
(a) May, 1964
(b) October, 1964
(c) May, 1974
(d) October, 1974   

Answer

C

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

On the 15th August, 1947 Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations. He was in Kolkata in the areas which were torn by gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims. He was saddened by the communal violence and disheartened that the principles of ahimsa (non-violence) and satyagraha (active but non-violent resistance) that he had lived and worked for, had failed to bind the people in troubled times.
Gandhiji went on to persuade the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly improved the situation, and the coming of independence was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony, with joyous dancing in the streets. Gandhiji’s prayer meetings attracted large crowds. But this was short lived as riots between Hindus and Muslims erupted once again and Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace. Next month Gandhiji moved to Delhi where large scale violence had erupted. He was deeply concerned about ensuring that Muslims should be allowed to stay in India with dignity, as equal citizens. He was also concerned about the relations between India and Pakistan. He was unhappy with what he saw as the Indian government’s decision not to honour its financial commitments to Pakistan.
With all this in mind he undertook what turned out to be his last fast in January 1948. As in Kolkata, his fast had a dramatic effect in Delhi. Communal tension and violence reduced. Muslims of Delhi and surrounding areas could safely return to their homes. The Government of India agreed to give Pakistan its dues.

56. Where was Gandhiji on the eve of Independence of India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Delhi
(c) Lahore
(d) Pune 

Answer

A

57. What made Gandhiji disheartened at the time when India was celebrating achieving independence?
(a) Partition of India followed by communal riots.
(b) His values and principles have failed to bind the people of India.
(c) Indian government’s decision of not honouring its financial commitments to Pakistan.
(d) None of the above.   

Answer

B

58. Gandhiji resorted to ……………. to bring and restore peace and communal harmony among the rioting masses.
(a) organising public rallies
(b) fasting
(c) non-violent movement
(d) All of these   

Answer

B

59. At which of the following places Gandhiji undertook the last ever fast of his life in January 1948?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Pune
(c) Noakhali
(d) Delhi   

Answer

D

60. …………………. and …………………… were the two principles which Gandhiji preached and lived throughout his life.
Fill the blanks with appropriate words.
(a) Ahimsa; Satyagraha
(b) Communal Harmony; Peace
(c) Equality; Brotherhood
(d) None of these   

Answer

A

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